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31 Oct 2014

Auditing Mcqs

Auditing Multiple Choice Questions (MCQS) Page-11These Mcqs are very helpful for preparation of various posts i.e. Senior Auditor, Junior Auditor,Accountant. These Mcqs are also Important for Punjab Public Service Commission, National Testing Service, Federal Public Service Commission Tests/examinations.
               


Pages: 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 10 11| 12


INTERNAL CONTROL


1. Tests of control are not concerned with_

a) Existence of controls
b) Effectiveness of controls
c) Continuity of controls
d) Designing of controls

2. The sequence of steps in the auditor’s consideration of internal control is as follows –

a) Obtain an understanding, design substantive test, perform tests of control, make a
preliminary assessment of control risk
b) Design substantive tests, obtain an understanding, perform tests of control, make a
preliminary assessment of control risk
c) Obtain an understanding, make a preliminary assessment of control risk, perform tests of
control, design substantive procedures.
d) Perform tests of control, obtain and understanding, make a preliminary assessment of
control risk, design

3. Which of the following is not an inherent limitation of internal control system?

a) Management override
b) Collusion among employees
c) Inefficiency of internal auditor
d) Abuse of authority

4. An auditor should study and evaluate internal controls to

a) determine whether assets are safeguarded
b) Suggest improvements in internal control
c) Plan audit procedures
d) express and opinion

5. XYZ Ltd. Conducts quarterly review of operations. It discovers that unrest in a south east
Asian country may affect the supply of raw materials to it the next quarter. This is an
example of :

a) risk assessment
b) control procedure
c) supervision
d) control environment

6. The primary purpose of performing tests of control is to provide reasonable assurance that_

a) there are no material misstatements due to fraud or error in financial statement
b) accounting system is well documented
c) Written evidence is there to support transactions
d) if internal control is effective

7. If the auditor assesses control risk as high….

a) Document the conclusions
b) documents the reasons along with conclusions
c) perform tests of control
d) perform walk through tests

8. The overall attitude and awareness of an entity’s board of directors concerning the
importance of internal control is reflected in

a) accounting controls
b) control environment
c) control procedures
d) supervision

9. Which of the following are included in test of control?

a) Performance and observation
b) Inquiry and analytical procedures
c) Comparison and conformation
d) Inspection and verification

10.Control risk is assessed at

a) Overall financial statements level 
b) Fraud risk factor level
c) Financial statement assertion level
d) Control environment level

11.Which of the following is not an example of a circumstance, in which additional tests of
control will not be performed after obtaining an understanding to plan the audit?

a) Controls are known to be cost ineffective
b) Controls are effective but auditor opines that performing tests of control and reduced
substantive tests would not be cost effective
c) Controls are effective and evidence already obtained is adequate to support a planned
assessed level of control risk which is less than high
d) Performing extensive substantive testing would not lead to efficiency

12.An auditor assesses control risk because ita)
affects the audit risk
b) affects the level of detection risk that auditor may accept
c) helps him to fix materiality level for each financial assertion
d) is directly related to inherent risk

13.A flow chart, made by the auditor, of an entity’s internal control system is a graphic
representation that depicts the auditor’s.

a) understanding of the system
b) understanding of fraud risk factors
c) documentation of assessment of control risk
d) Both (a) and (c)

14.The performance of tests of control is documented in

a) audit programme
b) flow charts
 c) working papers
d) any of the above

15.Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) Intern risk and control risk cannot be controlled by the management i.e are
uncontrollable
b) Detection risk is related directly to they effectiveness of the auditor prosecutor
c) Detection risk related inversely to control risk
d) Internet risk and control risk are highly interrelated

16.The independence of an internal auditor will most likely be assured if he reports to the

a) President Finance
b) President System
c) Managing Director
d) CEO

17. In comparison to the independent auditor, an internal auditor is more likely to be concerned with

a) cost accounting system
b) internal control system
c) legal compliance
d) accounting system


18.When an independent auditor decides that the work performed by internal auditors may
have bearing on the nature, timing and extent of planned audit procedures, the independent
auditor should evaluate objectivity of the internal auditor. The most important factor
influencing it would be

a) organizational level to which he reports
b) qualification of internal auditor
c) system of quality control of his work
d) all of the above


19.When an independent auditor relies on the work of an internal auditor, he or she should

a) examine the scope of internal auditor’s work
b) examine the system of supervising review and documentation of internal auditor’s work
c) adequacy of related audit programme
d) all of the above


20. Proper segregation of duties reduces the opportunities in which a person would both

a) establish controls and executes them
b) records cash receipts and cash payments
c) perpetuate errors and frauds and conceals them

d) record the transaction in journal and ledger.


                        INTERNAL CONTROL

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. A
16. C 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C



GOVERNMENT AUDIT

Auditing Multiple Choice Questions (MCQS) Page-10These Mcqs are very helpful for preparation of various posts i.e. Senior Auditor, Junior Auditor,Accountant. These Mcqs are also Important for Punjab Public Service Commission, National Testing Service, Federal Public Service Commission Tests/examinations.
       
Pages: 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 10 11| 12

              

GOVERNMENT AUDIT

1. AS PER C & AG ACT, 1971 THE TENURE OF THE COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL IS …….YEARS

A) FOUR
B) FIVE
C) SIX
D) SEVEN

2. THE PART OF GOVERNMENT AUDIT, WHICH IS CONCERNED WITH EXAMINING WHETHER THE MONEY HAS BEEN SPENT FOR THE PURPOSE SPECIFIED IN APPROPRIATION ACT, IS CALLED.


A) AUDIT OF SANCTIONS
B) AUDIT OF PROVISION OF FUNDS
C) AUDIT OF RULES AND ORDERS
D) AUDIT OF FINANCIAL PROPRIETY

3. AUDIT OF TRANSACTION DOES NOT INCLUDE –

A) PROPRIETY AUDIT
B) EFFICIENCY –CUM PERFORMANCE AUDIT
C) AUDIT OF RECEIPTS
D) AUDIT OF EXPENDITURE

4. THE INCOME TAX DEPARTMENT HAS SENT MR. X DOUBLE REFUND OF ADVANCE TAX. THE GOVERNMENT AUDITOR DETECTED THIS WHILE CONDUCTING

A) AUDIT OF EXPENDITURE
 B) PERFORMANCE AUDIT
C) AUDIT OF STORES AND STOCK
 D) AUDIT OF RECEIPTS

5. AUDIT OF DEBT, DEPOSITS AND REMITTANCES DOES NOT COVER
A) AUDIT OF BORROWINGS
B) AUDIT OF AMORTIZATION OF DEBT
C) AUDIT OF SANCTIONS
D) REMITTANCE AUDIT

6. A STATE GOVERNMENT SPENT RUPEES FIFTY LAKHS ON RENOVATION OF RAJ BHAVAN’ FOR ITS GOVERNOR. IN THE C & AG’S OPINION, THIS EXPENDITURE WAS MORE THAN WHAT OCCASION DEMANDED? IT IS AN EXAMPLED OF –

A) PROPRIETY AUDIT
B) PERFORMANCE AUDIT
C) AUDIT AGAINST PROVISION OF FUNDS
D) NONE OF THE ABOVE

7. AUDIT REPORTS ON PSU ARE

A) SUBMITTED TO THE PRESIDENT/GOVERNOR FOR BEING LAID BEFORE THE PARLIAMENT
B) SENT TO CONCERNED MINISTRIES/DEPARTMENTS
C) SUBMITTED TO BOD OF CONCERNED PSU
D) ANY OF THE ABOVE

8. THE C & AG, SOME YEARS AGO, GAVE ADVERSE COMMENTS ON EXPENDITURE INCURRED ON BUYING COFFINS FOR SOLDIERS KILLED IN A WAR. IN HIS OPINION, THE COFFINS CASES IMPORTED COULD HAVE BEEN REPLACE WITH LESS EXPENSIVE, DOMESTICALLY PRODUCED ONES. THIS IS AN ASPECT OF –

A) AUDIT OF SANCTIONS
B) AUDIT OF STORES AND STOCKS
C) PROPRIETY AUDIT
D) BOTH (B) AND (C)

9. WHO AMONG THE FOLLOWING IS ELIGIBLE TO BE APPOINTED AS AN AUDIT OF GOVERNMENT COMPANY?

A) A CHARTERED ACCOUNTANT IN PRACTICE
B) A CHARTERED ACCOUNTANT WHETHER IN PRACTICE OR NOT
C) AN AUDITOR APPOINTED BY THE C & AG
D) ANY OF THE ABOVE

10.THE STATUTORY AUDITOR OF A GOVERNMENT COMPANY SUBMITS HIS REPORT TO_

A) THE BODS OF THE COMPANY
 B) THE C & AG
C) THE LEGISLATURE

D) THE COMPANY SECRETARY






                               GOVERNMENT AUDIT


1.     C 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. B







COMPANY AUDITOR

Auditing Multiple Choice Questions (MCQS) Page-12These Mcqs are very helpful for preparation of various posts i.e. Senior Auditor, Junior Auditor,Accountant. These Mcqs are also Important for Punjab Public Service Commission, National Testing Service, Federal Public Service Commission Tests/examinations.


     Pages: 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 10 11| 12




 COMPANY AUDITOR



1. WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE APPOINTMENT OF STATUTORY AUDITOR OF A LIMITED COMPANY?

A) DIRECTORS OF THE COMPANY
B) MEMBERS OF THE COMPANY
C) THE CENTRAL GOVERNMENT
D) ALL OF THE ABOVE

2. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SECTIONS DEAL WITH QUALIFICATIONS OF THE AUDITOR ?

A) SECTION 226 (1) AND SECTION 226(2)
B) SECTION 224 (1) AND SECTION 224 (2)
C) SECTION 226 (3) AND SECTION 226(4)
D) SECTION 224(3) & SEC.224

3. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT IS NOT TRUE?

A) A PARTNERSHIP FIRM CAN BE APPOINTED AS A STATUTORY AUDITOR OF LIMITED COMPANY
B) APPOINTMENT CAN BE MADE IN THE NAME OF THE FIRM
C) MAJORITY OF THE PARTNERS SHOULD BE PRACTICING IN INDIA
D) ALL PARTNERS SHOULD BE CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS

4. AS PER THE REQUIREMENTS OF SECTION 226(3) AND 226(4) A PERSON IS DISQUALIFIED FROM BEING
APPOINTED AS A STATUTORY AUDITOR IF HE HOLDS­

A) EQUITY SHARES OR DEBENTURES OF THE COMPANY
B) EQUITY SHARES CARRYING VOTING OF THE COMPANY
C) SHARES CARRYING VOTING RIGHTS OF THE COMPANY
D) SECURITY CARRYING VOTING RIGHTS OF THE COMPANY

5. THE BOARD OF DIRECTORS SHALL APPOINT FIRST AUDITOR OF A COMPANY

A) WITH IN ONE MONTH OF COMPLETION OF CAPITAL SUBSCRIPTION STATE OF THE COMPANY
B) WITH IN ONE MONTH OF THE PROMOTION OF THE COMPANY
C) WITH IN ONE MONTH OF THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE BUSINESS OF THE COMPANY
D) WITH IN ONE MONTH OF INCORPORATION OF THE COMPANY

6. THE TERM OF THE AUDITOR SHIP OF FIRST AUDITOR WOULD BE FROM THE DATE OF APPOINTMENT TIL __

A) THE CONCLUSION OF STATUTORY MEETING
B) THE CONCLUSION OF FIRST ANNUAL GENERAL MEETING
C) THE CONCLUSION OF NEXT ANNUAL GENERAL MEETING
D) THE DATE OF REMOVAL

7. IN CASE THE DIRECTIONS FAIL TO APPOINT FIRST AUDITOR (S), THE SHAREHOLDERS SHALL APPOINT THEM
AT…..BY PASSING A RESOLUTION

A) A GENERAL MEETING
 B) FIRST ANNUAL GENERAL MEETING
C) STATUTORY MEETING
 D) ANNUAL GENERAL MEETING

8. LIFE INSURANCE CORPORATION OF INDIA HOLDS TWENTY FIVE PERCENT OF SUBSCRIBED CAPITAL OF XYZ
LTD. THE APPOINTMENT OF STATUTORY AUDITOR IN XYZ LTD. WOULD BE BY__

A) ORDINARY RESOLUTION
 B) SPECIAL RESOLUTION
 C) (A) OR (B)
 D) NONE OF THE ABOVE

9. ICICI PRUDENTIAL, A LIFE INSURANCE COMPANY, HOLDS THIRTY-TWO PERCENT OF SUBSCRIBED SHARE CAPITAL OF DELTA LTD. THE STATUTORY AUDITOR OF DELTA LTD. WOULD BE APPOINTED BY__

A) ORDINARY RESOLUTION
B) SPECIAL RESOLUTION
C) EITHER OF THE ABOVE
 D) NONE

10.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT IS NOT TRUE REGARDING APPOINTMENT OF STATUTORY AUDITOR BY THE CENTRAL GOVERNMENT?

A) SUCH POWERS HAVE BEEN CONFERRED UPON IT BY SECTION 224(3)
B) IF A COMPANY FAILS TO APPOINT AN AUDITOR AT A GENERAL MEETING
C) IF AN AUDITOR REFUSES TO ACCEPT APPOINTMENT, THE POWERS OF THE CENTRAL GOVERNMENT CAN BE
EXERCISED.
D) NONE OF THE ABOVE

11.IF A CASUAL VACANCY IN THE OFFICE OF AUDITOR ARISES BY HIS RESIGNATION IT SHOULD ONLY BE FIL ED BY
THE COMPANY IN A……..

A) BOARD MEETING
 B) EXTRAORDINARY GENERAL MEETING
C) GENERAL MEETING
 D) ANNUAL GENERAL MEETING

12.FOR THE PURPOSES OF SECTION 224(IB) THE NUMBER OF PARTNERS OF A FIRM WHICH SHALL BE TAKEN INTO ACCOUNT WOULD BE AS ON THE DATE OF _

A) COMPLETION OF AUDIT
B) AUDITOR’S REPORT
C) ACCEPTANCE OF AUDIT
D) STARTING OF AUDIT WORK

13.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS COUNTED FOR THE PURPOSES OF SECTION 224(IB) THE NUMBER OF PARTNERS OF A FIRM WHICH SHALL BE TAKEN INTO ACCOUNT WOULD BE AS ON THE DATA OF ___

A) JOINT AUDIT
B) AUDIT TO NON­PROFIT COMPANIES
C) AUDIT OF UNLIMITED COMPANIES
 D) ALL OF THE ABOVE E) (A) AND (B) ONLY


14. MR. NARAYAN, A CHARTED ACCOUNTANT, HAS NINETEEN AUDITS, OUT OF FOL OWING AUDITS WHICH AUDITS SHOULD HE ACCEPT TO ENSURE HE DOESN’T VIOLATE PROVISIONS OF SECTION 224(IB) __

A) AUDIT OF ZEBA LTD. A PRIVATE COMPANY
B) AUDIT OF BRANCH OF POINTEC LTD. A FOREIGN COMPANY
C) AUDIT OF TWO BRANCHES OF VIRTUE LTD. AN INDIAN COMPANY
D) ALL OF THEM

15. WHICH AUDIT OUT OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD NOT BE REGARDED AS ONE AUDIT FOR THE PURPOSES OF SECTION 224(IB)?

A) AUDIT OF ONE BRANCH EACH OF TWO DIFFERENT COMPANIES
B) JOINT AUDIT 
C) AUDIT HEAD OFFICE & BRANCHES
D) AUDIT OF ONE OR MORE BRANCHES OF A COMPANY

16. THE AUDITOR OF A GOVERNMENT COMPANY IS APPOINTED BY THE C & AG. HIS REMUNERATION IS FIXED BY
 A) THE C & AG
B) THE SHAREHOLDERS
C) THE SHAREHOLDERS AT AN ANNUAL GENERAL MEETING
D) THE BOARD OF DIRECTORS

17. THE SECTION, WHICH CONTAINS PROVISIONS REGARDING REMUNERATION OF THE AUDITOR IS_

A) SECTION 224(9)
B) SECTION224 (7)
C) SECTION224 (8)
D) SECTION224 (6)

18. THE AUTHORITY TO REMOVE THE FIRST AUDITOR BEFORE THE EXPIRY OF TERM IS WITH_

A) THE SHAREHOLDERS IN A GENERAL MEETING
B) THE SHAREHOLDERS IN THE FIRST ANNUAL GENERAL MEETING
C) THE BOARD OF DIRECTORS
D) THE CENTRAL GOVERNMENT

19. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS NOT CORRECT REGARDING REMOVAL OF FIRST AUDITOR BEFORE EXPIRY OF THE TERM?

A) HE IS REMOVED AT A GENERAL MEETING
B) THE SHAREHOLDERS ARE AUTHORIZED TO DO SO
C) THE APPROVAL OF THE CENTRAL GOVERNMENT IS REQUIRED FOR SUCH REMOVAL
D) THE PROVISIONS FOR SUCH REMOVAL ARE CONTAINED IN SECTION 224(7)

20. THE RETIRING AUDITOR DOES NOT HAVE A RIGHT TO___
 A) MAKE WRITTEN REPRESENTATIONS
 B) GET HIS REPRESENTATIONS CIRCULATED.
C) BE HEARD AT THE MEETING
D) SPEAK AS A MEMBER OF THE COMPANY

21. WHO OUT OF THE FOLLOWING CANNOT BE APPOINTED AS A STATUTORY AUDITOR OF THE COMPANY?

A) ERSTWHILE DIRECTOR
B) INTERNAL AUDITOR
 C) RELATIVE OF A DIRECTOR
 D) ONLY (B) AND (C)

22.A STATUTORY AUDITOR HAS A RIGHT OF ACCESS AT ALL TIMES TO

A) BOOKS AND ACCOUNTS OF A COMPANY B) BOOKS, ACCOUNTS AND DOCUMENTS OF THE COMPANY
C) BOOKS, ACCOUNTS AND VOUCHERS OF THE COMPANY
D) NOTICES AND DOCUMENTS OF THE COMPANY

23. THE AUDITOR HAS A RIGHT TO­
 A) OBTAIN INFORMATION AND EXPLANATION
B) OBTAIN INFORMATION AND EXPLANATION FROM THE EMPLOYEES AND OFFICERS
C) OBTAIN INFORMATION AND EXPLANATION NECESSARY FOR THE PURPOSE OF AUDIT
D) BOTH (B) AND (C

24. THE PRINCIPAL AUDITOR, AS PER CLARIFICATION ISSUED BY THE ICAI, DOES NOT HAVE ANY RIGHT TO

A) INSPECT WORKING PAPERS OF THE BRANCH AUDITOR
 B) VISIT BRANCHES
C) SEEK INFORMATION NECESSARY FOR AUDIT PURPOSES
D) INCORPORATE THE BRANCH AUDIT REPORT IN HIS AUDIT REPORT

25.UNDER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SECTION AUDITOR HAS A DUTY TO ENQUIRE INTO SIX SPECIFIED MATTERS  AND REPORT BY EXCEPTION?

A) SECTION 227(4A)
 B) SECTION 227 (IA)
 C) SECTION 227 (2)
D) SECTION 227(3)

6.THE AUDITOR HAS TO ENQUIRE, UNDER SECTION 227 (IA) INTO DIFFERENT ASPECTS, RELATED TO SHARES ALLOTTED FOR CASH FOR THE PURPOSE OF AUDITOR INCLUDE

A) SHARES AGAINST WHOSE ALLOTMENT CASH HAS ACTUALLY BEEN RECEIVED
B) SHARES ALLOTTED FOR CONSIDERATION OTHER THAN CASH
C) SHARES ALLOTTED AGAINST A DEBT PAYABLE
D) ALL OF THEM

27.RIGHT TO VISIT BRANCHES HAS BEEN GIVEN TO THE AUDITOR UNDER WHICH SECTION?

A) SECTION 222(3)
 B) SECTION 228(2)
 C) SECTION 228(4)
D) SECTION 228(3)

28.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS WITH REGARD TO RULES REGARDING EXEMPTION FROM BRANCH AUDIT IS NOT TRUE?

A) A BRANCH OFFICE OF A COMPANY CAN BE GRANTED EXEMPTION ON THE BASIS OF QUANTUM OF
ACTIVITY CRITERION
B) IF A SATISFACTORY ARRANGEMENT OF SCRUTINY CHECK OF THE BOOKS OF ACCOUNT OF A BRANCH OFFICE
OF A MANUFACTURING COMPANY HAS BEEN MADE, IT CAN BE EXEMPTED FORM BRANCH AUDIT
C) COST CONSIDERATION SHOULD BE CONSIDERED AS AN IMPORTANT FACTOR/GROUND FOR EXEMPTION
FROM BRANCH AUDIT
D) THE AUDITOR SHOULD STATE IN HIS AUDIT REPORT THAT BRANCH OFFICE IS EXEMPTED BY VIRTUE OF
QUANTUM OF ACTIVITY OR ANY OTHER BASIS

29.THE BRANCH AUDITOR IS APPOINTED BY –

A) SHAREHOLDERS IN AN ANNUAL GENERAL MEETING
 B) SHAREHOLDERS IN GENERAL MEETING
C) BOARD OF DIRECTORS IN BOARD MEETING
D) ANY OF THE ABOVE

30.AUDITOR OF A ……COMPANY DOES NOT HAVE RIGHT TO VISIT FOREIGN BRANCHES OF THE COMPANY

A) UNLIMITED LIABILITY
 B) MANUFACTURING
C) BANKING
D) NON­PROFIT MAKING

31.SPECIAL AUDIT IS CONDUCTED AT THE ORDER OF THE CENTRAL GOVERNMENT. WHICH SECTION GIVES SUCH POWERS?

A) SECTION 233(A)
 B) SECTION 233A
C) SECTION 242(A)
D) SECTION 242A

32.WHO AMONG THE FOL OWING CAN BE APPOINTED AS SPECIAL AUDITOR BY THE CENTRAL GOVERNMENT?
A) THE STATUTORY AUDITOR
 B) CHARTERED ACCOUNTANT IN PRACTICE
C) ANY CHARTERED ACCOUNTED WHO IS NOT IN PRACTICE
 D) BOTH (A) AND (B)

33.THE SCOPE OF THE AUDIT INCLUDING REFERENCE TO THE PRONOUNCEMENTS OF THE ICAI, WHICH THE
AUDITOR ADHERES TO, GENERAL Y IS COMMUNICATED TO THE CLIENT IN THE

I) AUDITOR’S REPORT
II) ENGAGEMENT LETTER II ) REPRESENTATION LETTER
A) I) ONLY B) BOTH (I) AND (II) C) BOTH (I) AND (I I) D) ALL THE ABOVE

34.IF ANY DIRECTOR IS DISQUALIFIED FROM BEING APPOINTED UNDER SECTION 274(1) (G), THE AUDITOR
SHOULD MENTION THIS FACT IN HIS AUDIT REPORT. FOR THIS PURPOSE, HOW DOES HE DETERMINE THEIR
ELIGIBILITY :
A) HE OBTAINS A REPRESENTATION FROM EACH DIRECTOR
B) HE OBTAINS A MANAGEMENT REPRESENTATION
C) HE ENQUIRIES FROM REGISTRAR OF COMPANIES D) ANY ONE OF THE ABOVE

35.AS PER THE ‘STATEMENT ON QUALIFICATION IN AUDITOR’S REPORT’S ISSUED BY THE ICAI, THE AUDITOR, UNDER SECTION 227(3) HAS TO GAVE A STATEMENT OF FACT ON_

A) PROPER BOOKS OF ACCOUNT
 B) ACCOUNTING STANDARDS
C) CESS PAYABLE UNDER SECTION 441A
D) NONE OF THE ABOVE

36.THE DATE ON AUDITOR’S REPORT SHOULD NOT BE__

A) THE DATA OF AGM
B) LATER THAN THE DATE ON WHICH THE ACCOUNTS ARE APPROVED IN BOARD’S MEETING
C) EARLIER THAN THE DATE ON WHICH THE ACCOUNTS ARE APPROVED BY THE MANAGEMENT
D) BOTH (A) AND (B)

37.SECTION 227(2) OF THE COMPANIES ACT, REQUIRES THE AUDITOR TO GIVE HIS REPORT TO THE MEMBERS OF THE COMPANY ON CERTAIN MATTERS. WHICH OF THE FOL OWING IS NOT INCLUDED IN THE ABOVE?

A) ACCOUNTS EXAMINED BY HIM
B) EVERY BALANCE SHEET AND PROFIT AND LOSS ACCOUNT LAID BEFORE A GENERAL MEETING DURING HIS
TENURE
C) EVERY DOCUMENT THAT IS A PART OF OR ‘ANNEXED TO’ THE BALANCE SHEET
D) EVERY DOCUMENT WHICH IS ATTACHED TO THE PROFIT AND LOSS ACCOUNT

38.WHEN RESTRICTIONS THAT SIGNIFICANTLY AFFECT THE SCOPE OF THE AUDIT ARE IMPOSED BY THE CLIENT,
THE AUDITOR GENERALLY SHOULD ISSUE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING OPINION?
A) QUALIFIED OPINION
 B) DISCLAIMER OF OPINION
 C) ADVERSE OPINION
D) UNQUALIFIED REPORT WITH ‘AN EMPHASIS OF MATTER’ PARAGRAPH;

39.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REPORT NOT RESULT IN QUALIFICATION OF THE AUDITOR’S OPINION DUE TO A SCOPE LIMITATION?

A) RESTRICTIONS THE CLIENT IMPOSED
B) RELIANCE ON THE REPORT OF OTHER AUDITOR
C) INABILITY TO OBTAIN SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENTIAL MATTER
D) INADEQUACY OF ACCOUNTING RECORDS

40.THE INVENTORY CONSISTS OF ABOUT ONE PER CENT OF AL ASSETS. THE CLIENT HAS IMPOSED RESTRICTION ON AUDITOR TO PROHIBIT OBSERVATION OF STOCK TAKE. THE AUDITOR CANNOT APPLY ALTERNATE AUDIT PROCEDURES.


A) UNQUALIFIED OPINION
B) QUALIFIED OPINION
C) DISCLAIMER OF OPINION
D) ADVERSE OPINION

41.IF IN THE ABOVE QUESTION, THE INVENTORY CONSISTED OF ABOUT TEN PER CENT OF TOTAL ASSETS, OTHER CONDITIONS REMAINING SAME, THE AUDITOR SHOULD ISSUE __

A) UNQUALIFIED OPINION
B) QUALIFIED OPINION
C) DISCLAIMER OF OPINION
D) ADVERSE OPINION

42. THE AUDITOR HAS SERIOUS CONCERN ABOUT THE GOING CONCERN OF THE COMPANY. IT IS DEPENDENT ON COMPANY’S OBTAINING A WORKING CAPITAL LOAN FROM A BANK WHICH HAS BEEN APPLIED FOR. THE MANAGEMENT OF THE COMPANY HAS MADE FULL DISCLOSURE OF THESE FACTS IN THE NOTES TO THE BALANCE SHEET. THE AUDITOR IS SATISFIED WITH THE LEVEL OF DISCLOSURE. HE SHOULD ISSUE_

A) UNQUALIFIED OPINION
B) UNQUALIFIED OPINION WITH REFERENCE TO NOTES TO THE ACCOUNTS
C) QUALIFIED OPINION
D) DISCLAIMER OF OPINION

43.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE ABOUT EXPLANATORY NOTES?

A) THESE ARE GIVEN BY THE DIRECTORS OF THE COMPANY
B) THESE ARE GIVEN TO ADHERE TO REQUIREMENTS OF SECTION 211.
C) THESE ARE GIVEN BY AUDITORS OF THE COMPANY IN AUDITOR’S REPORT
 D) ALL OF THE ABOVE

44.THE CLIENT CHANGED METHOD OF DEPRECIATION FROM STRAIGHT LINE TO WRITTEN DOWN VALUE METHOD. THIS HAS BEEN DISCLOSED AS A NOTE TO THE FINANCIAL STATEMENTS. IT HAS AN IMMATERIAL EFFECT ON THE CURRENT FINANCIAL STATEMENTS. IT IS EXPECTED, HOWEVER, THAT THE CHANGE WIL HAVE A SIGNIFICANT EFFECT ON FUTURE PERIODS. WHICH OF THE FOL OWING OPTION SHOULD THE AUDITOR EXPRESS?

A) UNQUALIFIED OPINION
B) QUALIFIED OPINION
C) DISCLAIMER OF OPINION
D) ADVERSE OPINION

45.WHICH OF THE FOL OWING IS NOT TRUE REGARDING REQUIREMENTS UNDER SECTION 227(3) (F) OF THE COMPANIES ACT, 1956?

A) THE AUDITOR HAS TO SATISFY HIMSELF WHETHER ANY OF THE DIRECTORS OF THE COMPANY, WHETHER
PUBLIC OR PRIVATE, ARE DISQUALIFIED FROM BEING APPOINTED AS DIRECTORS AS PER SECTION 274(1) (G).
 B) SECTION 274(1) (G) IS APPLICABLE TO APPOINTMENT OF DIRECTORS BOTH IN PUBLIC AND PRIVATE
COMPANIES BUT REPORTING IS LIMITED TO ONLY THOSE DIRECTORS OF A COMPANY WHO ARE ALSO
DIRECTORS OF A PUBLIC COMPANY
C) THE AUDITOR REQUIRES EVERY DIRECTOR TO SUBMIT A WRITTEN REPRESENTATION IN RESPECT OF EACH
PUBLIC COMPANY, OF WHICH THE IS A DIRECTOR, AS TO WHETHER SUCH COMPANY HAS DEFAULTED IN
TERMS OF PROVISIONS OF SECTIONS 274(1) (G)
D) THE DISQUALIFICATION SHOULD BE CONSIDERED ON THE DATE OF AUDIT REPORT.

46.THE MANAGEMENT OF A COMPANY, TO WHICH AS3. IS NOT APPLICABLE, DOES NOT INCLUDE STATEMENT OF CASH FLOWS IN ITS ANNUAL REPORT. THE AUDITOR SHOULD EXPRESS

 A)   UNQUALIFIED OPINION
 B) QUALIFIED OPINION
C) ADVERSE OPINION
D) ANY OF THESE DEPENDING UPON MATERIALITY AND PERVASIVENESS AND ADEQUACY OF DISCLOSURE

47.IN CASE THE AUDITOR GIVES A DISCLAIMER OF OPINION IN THE AUDIT REPORT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PARAGRAPH(S) OF A STANDARD UNQUALIFIED AUDIT REPORT ARE MODIFIED?

A) SCOPE PARAGRAPH
B) OPINION PARAGRAPH
C) SCOPE AND OPINION PARAGRAPHS
D) INTRODUCTORY, SCOPE AND OPINION PARAGRAPH

48.A DEPARTURE FROM RECOGNIZED ACCOUNTING PRINCIPLE IS DISCLOSED IN A NOTE TO THE FINANCIAL STATEMENTS. THE AUDITOR SHOULD

A) ISSUE A STANDARD UNQUALIFIED AUDIT REPORT
B) ISSUE A QUALIFIED REPORT
C) ISSUE AN UNQUALIFIED REPORT WITH ‘EMPHASIS OF MATTER’ PARAGRAPH
D) DISCLAIM OPINION

49.AB & CO, CHARTERED ACCOUNTANT, HAVE BEEN REQUESTED BY THEIR CLIENT XYZ LTD. NOT TO CONFIRM ACCOUNTS RECEIVABLES BECAUSE OF CONCERNS ABOUT CREASING CONFLICTS WITH CUSTOMERS OVER AMOUNTS OWED. THE AUDITORS WERE SATISFIED CONCERNING RECEIVABLES AFTER APPLYING ALTERNATIVE AUDIT PROCEDURES AB & CO.’S AUDITORS REPORT LIKELY CONTAINED

A) QUALIFIED OPINION
B) DISCLAIMER OF OPINION
C) UNQUALIFIED I OPINION WITH AN EXPLANATORY PARAGRAPH
D) UNQUALIFIED OPINION

50.THE AUDITOR SHOULD STATE THE REASONS FOR HIS RESERVATIONS IN AUDIT REPORT AND SHOULD TRY TO QUANTIFY THE EFFECT ON THEM. THIS SHOULD BE DONE IN CASE HE HAS EXPRESSED _

I) A QUALIFIED OPINION II) AN UNQUALIFIED OPINION WITH EMPHASIS OF MATTER PARAGRAPH
III) AN ADVERSE OPINION IV) A DISCLAIMER OF OPINION
A) I) ONLY B) I) AND (IV) ONLY C) I), III) AND (IV) ONLY D) ALL OF THE ABOVE

51.COMPANIES EXEMPTED FROM APPLICATION OF CARO, 2003 DOES NOT INCLUDE_

A) A BANKING COMPANY
B) AN INSURANCE COMPANY
C) A PRIVATE LIMITED COMPANY WITH PAID UP CAPITAL AND RESERVES NOT MORE THAN FIFTY FIVE LAKH
D) A LICENSED COMPANY

52.UNDER CARO, 2003, THE AUDITOR’S REPORT SHOULD INCLUDE REPORT ABOUT MAINTENANCE OF PROPER RECORDING RELATING TO____

A) FIXED ASSETS AND COST
B) FIXED ASSETS, COST AND INVESTMENTS
C) FIXED ASSETS , COST INVESTMENTS AND INVENTORIES
 D) FIXED ASSETS, COST AND INVENTORY

53.UNDER CARO, 2003 THE AUDITOR IS REQUIRED TO REPORT ON

A) ARREARS OF CUMULATIVE PREFERENCE DIVIDENDS
B) PREFERENTIAL ALLOTMENT OF SHARES TO RELATED PARTY
C) DISPOSAL OF FIXED ASSETS AND ITS EFFECT ON GOING CONCERN.

D) UNSECURED LOANS GRANTED TO RELATED PARTY.




                          COMPANY AUDITOR

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. C 13. E 14. D 15. A

16. B 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. B 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. B

31. C 32. B 33. B 34. A 35. C 36. C 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. A

41. C 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. D 46. A 47. C 48. B 49. C 50. A

51. C 52. C 53. A
















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